Hi all
This is my first post so please be gentle with me!
I know this is a really basic question but i can't find the answer online so thought i'd ask here . . . can anyone tell me what to do please! I have an employee who commenced work in March 11 (so in the 10/11 tx year) & failed to complete a P46 correctly (he didn't tick any of the boxes on the back) so i put him on BR for March salaries. He has now presented me with a P45 that, by the time i need to action it in April (in the 11/12 tax year) will have been issued in the previous tax year.
Do i still action the P45 (ignoring the year to date figures) or do i just wait for the HMRC to issue me with a tax code notification?
Thank you!
Miss Babs