Hi,
An employer has one part-time employee who is also employed part-time elsewhere. Both employers pay approx. the same hourly rate. My client is the second employer and by that I mean her employee has been working for the other employer before she came to my client.
Am I correct in thinking that as this is a secondary job, the employee should have a tax code of BR?
Also, is it true that the employee can decide with which employer to have the standard tax code with and which to have the BR code with? As my client is paying a gross to net figure, this is going to be quite substantial. I don't suppose she could claim any overpayment of tax back could she?
Any advice appreciated.
Sam